A biblical review of text's concerning remarriage


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FaithNGod is offline FaithNGod Post #1  July 29,2009, 2:02pm
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This is a biblical review from a womans point of view concerning biblical text to support the principle of remarriage.

It is not my intention to point the finger or to make anyone feel bad. As Christians are we open to objectivly investigate biblical text with out getting in a uproar.

I will be coming at this as a student and will only ask questions. I have invited coeuri to be the spokes woman for you ladies. If she declines then I will invite someone else. But please do not overwelm me with thoughts because I am only going to respond to coeuri.

This is in response of a heated discussion on another thread.

I come at this with the belief that the bible is the living, unchanging Word of God and that every word is inspired by God and thus not fallible. That it is completly reliable and is sufficient to meet all our spiritual needs. 2 Timothy 3:16-17
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meri75 is offline meri75 Post #2  July 30,2009, 2:46am
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I agree with you re 2 Tim 3: 16-17.

I confess to feeling confused as to why you asking the women to air their viewpoint and/or queries via Coeuri or any spokes-person?
 
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FaithNGod is offline FaithNGod Post #3  July 30,2009, 5:09pm
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meri75 wrote :
I agree with you re 2 Tim 3: 16-17.

I confess to feeling confused as to why you asking the women to air their viewpoint and/or queries via Coeuri or any spokes-person?
Everyone seem so confident as to the right of remarriage after divorce for christians. I just dont see it in scripture. If it is their then where?
 
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lindseyk is offline lindseyk Post #4  July 30,2009, 11:00pm

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You see it there for yourself, FNG.

It seems to me we are beating a dead horse here. Somehow you believe you and you alone have found a loophole while everyone else has to suffer unless they are in your exact same situation. Scratch that - not everyone. Just men. And again, only if they are in your position. Can't we just leave it at that instead of going over and over the same ground? We are not getting anywhere and people are only going to get more and more frustrated as time goes on. Perhaps it's time to just let it go. You have your point of view, other people have their's. Christians are not always going to agree on absolutely everything, particularly something as sensitive and deeply personal as divorce. This is a contentious issue and not something anyone here takes lightly. It is only making matters worse to keep rehashing it.
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tumbleweed is offline tumbleweed Post #5  July 31,2009, 4:35am
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.

I come at this with the belief that the bible is the living, unchanging Word of God and that every word is inspired by God and thus not fallible. That it is completly reliable and is sufficient to meet all our spiritual needs. 2 Timothy 3:16-17[/quote]
but gods word dose change, go back and read your bible again and if you have missed this than your onlly reading what you want and diregarding the rest, if you need examples of this it sad, how about the diferance between the new and old testaments for starters,, god started man out on a path and gave hum free will, so he didnt even know where ,they would go,, over thousands of years he has made ajustment in his word to acomidate the changes of man,,,,,, now since the time the bible was put together and now things have changed more than in the rest of recorded history, so its about time for god to give us some new words to fit our new world, we arnt the same people as the bible was intended for ,some chaqnges need to be made to acomidate a new time and people,, jesus tried to tell the religious leaders of the time this and they didnt get it,, they were to hung up on the rulls to realy see the true words and what it was all about,, go back and read about who cast the first stone, this is an easy one and at the same time is also hard to fully understand all of what he was saying here, why did he kneel down 3 times and scribble in the dirt??
 
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meri75 is offline meri75 Post #6  July 31,2009, 6:01am
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FaithNGod wrote :
Everyone seem so confident as to the right of remarriage after divorce for christians. I just dont see it in scripture. If it is their then where?
Hmmm ... I don't think you will be able to find Scripture which specifically state that remarriage is permissable following divorce.

Luke 16:18, Mark 10:11-12, Matt:5:31-32. These Scriptures certainly recognise that remarriage after divorce does happen and clearly advises of the scenarios in which the remarriage causes adultery to be committed. There is no mention of repentence or forgiveness and also I notice that Christians are not referenced - I'm using NIV which says 'anyone'.

John 8:1-11. Jesus forgave her and gave the woman her freedom. I would imagine the lady was either married or divorced. It is interesting, IMO, that Jesus did not place conditions upon her freedom, other than to sin no more. Wouldn't this be indicative that sin once forgiven, remains forgiven and therefore though you may have consequences from your previous actions; your previous sin does not continue to contaminate your life and choices?

I'm not sure I explained that well. Let me try it as a hypothetical exercise: I marry and I commit adultery against my husband. I then genuinely repent and receive God's forgiveness. My sin is gone, but the consequences of my sin may remain. My husband divorces me and I, without sin as I have not committed adultery again and remain forgiven, remarry. As God no longer views me as a sinner (in this context), why should any other woman or man?
 
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FaithNGod is offline FaithNGod Post #7  July 31,2009, 3:24pm
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tumbleweed wrote :
.

I come at this with the belief that the bible is the living, unchanging Word of God and that every word is inspired by God and thus not fallible. That it is completly reliable and is sufficient to meet all our spiritual needs. 2 Timothy 3:16-17
but gods word dose change, go back and read your bible again and if you have missed this than your onlly reading what you want and diregarding the rest, if you need examples of this it sad, how about the diferance between the new and old testaments for starters,, god started man out on a path and gave hum free will, so he didnt even know where ,they would go,, over thousands of years he has made ajustment in his word to acomidate the changes of man,,,,,, now since the time the bible was put together and now things have changed more than in the rest of recorded history, so its about time for god to give us some new words to fit our new world, we arnt the same people as the bible was intended for ,some chaqnges need to be made to acomidate a new time and people,, jesus tried to tell the religious leaders of the time this and they didnt get it,, they were to hung up on the rulls to realy see the true words and what it was all about,, go back and read about who cast the first stone, this is an easy one and at the same time is also hard to fully understand all of what he was saying here, why did he kneel down 3 times and scribble in the dirt??[/quote]
Tumble,
I see a contridiction in you statement. How can you say that the Word of God changes and infallible at the same time? These are contridictory statements.

Thanks for the attempt to explain the Old /New testiment relationship. You might want to check your facts. Their are two main themes through out both.
First is God providing a covering for our sin. This is fulfilled through the death and sacrifice of Jesus on the cross. In the Old test. It is the picture of animal sacrifice evidenced by God killing the first animals to cover Adam & Eve after their rebellion. It is aslo evidenced by the ram caught in the thicket when Abraham was called to sacrifice his son. God said that I will provide the sacrifice. All through the Old Test. you have animal sacrifice as a type of the comming of the Messiah who is Jesus. There is the first beautiful connection.

Second connection is God calling out a people to be set apart and be His people. In the New Test. It is the Christians due to the rejection of the Jewish people. As Christians we are to be the light of this dark world no just for salvation but by the examples of our lives. We are really failing at this when it comes to marriage. The Old test people called out are the Jewish nation from the sead of Abraham. It is through the liniage of David that the Missiah had come. If you were to look into for your self you would see that both Joseph, Jesus step dad and Mary his mother were both from the liniage of David.

If you really studied your Bible you would see the Old test prophets fortelling of the comming of Jesus the messiah. That their is harmony in the entire bible. Good searching.

So tell me what context did Jesus scribble in the dirt and tell them to cast the stones. lets look into this text together since you brought it up.
 
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FaithNGod is offline FaithNGod Post #8  July 31,2009, 3:31pm
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meri75 wrote :
Hmmm ... I don't think you will be able to find Scripture which specifically state that remarriage is permissable following divorce.

Luke 16:18, Mark 10:11-12, Matt:5:31-32. These Scriptures certainly recognise that remarriage after divorce does happen and clearly advises of the scenarios in which the remarriage causes adultery to be committed. There is no mention of repentence or forgiveness and also I notice that Christians are not referenced - I'm using NIV which says 'anyone'.

John 8:1-11. Jesus forgave her and gave the woman her freedom. I would imagine the lady was either married or divorced. It is interesting, IMO, that Jesus did not place conditions upon her freedom, other than to sin no more. Wouldn't this be indicative that sin once forgiven, remains forgiven and therefore though you may have consequences from your previous actions; your previous sin does not continue to contaminate your life and choices?

I'm not sure I explained that well. Let me try it as a hypothetical exercise: I marry and I commit adultery against my husband. I then genuinely repent and receive God's forgiveness. My sin is gone, but the consequences of my sin may remain. My husband divorces me and I, without sin as I have not committed adultery again and remain forgiven, remarry. As God no longer views me as a sinner (in this context), why should any other woman or man?
So when Jesus told her to go and sin no more , what does that mean?

I will ask you the same question of what was really going on here in this text?

So if she was caught in adultry where was the man? Why was he not also brought before Jesus to be stoned? In vs 4 they said she was caught in the very act. How about that!
 
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lindseyk is offline lindseyk Post #9  July 31,2009, 3:41pm

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And there was NOBODY else there without sin, FNG. That's why NOBODY stuck around to cast a stone. Only Jesus is perfect and without sin.

Good grief! Are you honestly saying men can commit adultery consequence free and only women will and should be punished? This is getting ridiculous and I am done. Every single question you ask leads right back to your own pre-formed conclusions and your replies, particularly to women, are nothing short of brutally sarcastic. There is no point in discussing this further.

Before I go, however, you might want to do a little study of the culture in Biblical times. There are many reasons why only the woman was brought before Jesus, but I am not going to spell them out for you. Please go and do your own study. This matter is not as clear-cut as you make it out to be. You leave out many and/or ignore many significant factors in your research and analysis of this issue.
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FaithNGod is offline FaithNGod Post #10  July 31,2009, 4:06pm
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lindseyk wrote :
And there was NOBODY else there without sin, FNG. That's why NOBODY stuck around to cast a stone. Only Jesus is perfect and without sin.

Good grief! Are you honestly saying men can commit adultery consequence free and only women will and should be punished? This is getting ridiculous and I am done. Every single question you ask leads right back to your own pre-formed conclusions and your replies, particularly to women, are nothing short of brutally sarcastic. There is no point in discussing this further.

Before I go, however, you might want to do a little study of the culture in Biblical times. There are many reasons why only the woman was brought before Jesus, but I am not going to spell them out for you. Please go and do your own study. This matter is not as clear-cut as you make it out to be. You leave out many and/or ignore many significant factors in your research and analysis of this issue.
You are making assumptions about me. I am just trying to get people think. I will give you the answer. The man was involved in the plot to get Jesus in a delema. He was in cohoots with the religious leader that is why he was not brought before Jesus.

The woman even though commiting adultry with the man was more innocent because she was used as a pawn to trap Jesus. Jesus knew this and was sensitive about this with her. That is why he was hard on the men. You see if Jesus said stone her he would have lost favior with the people being that he was to be so loving. If he said let her go then he would have appeared to be going against the law of the Jews and would have lost validity.

This is why he said that he that is with out sin cast the first stone to the men condeming her. When he wrote in the dirt he was probally showing them when they had commited the same sin and probally with that very woman. She probally was their personal sex slave. Jesus was giving her freedom to not be involved with them anymore. That is just my thought on this.

So , why do people use this casting the first stone as a reflex whenever they dont want to hear truth concerning everything? Besides I have never commited adultry so does that give me the right to stone people who do? That is absurd.
 
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